summa theologica 3-13
Summa Theologica
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Question: 121
OF PIETY (TWO ARTICLES)
We must now consider the gift that corresponds to justice;
namely, piety. Under this head there are two points of inquiry:
(1) Whether it is a gift of the Holy Ghost?
(2) Which of the beatitudes and fruits corresponds to it?
Article: 1
Whether piety is a gift?
Objection 1: It seems that piety is not a gift. For the gifts
differ from the virtues, as stated above (FS, Question [68], Article
[1]). But piety is a virtue, as stated above (Question [101], Article
[3]). Therefore piety is not a gift.
Objection 2: Further, the gifts are more excellent than the
virtues, above all the moral virtues, as above (FS, Question [68],
Article [8]). Now among the parts of justice religion is greater than
piety. Therefore if any part of justice is to be accounted a gift, it
seems that religion should be a gift rather than piety.
Objection 3: Further, the gifts and their acts remain in heaven,
as stated above (FS, Question [68], Article [6]). But the act of piety
cannot remain in heaven: for Gregory says (Moral. i) that "piety fills
the inmost recesses of the heart with works of mercy": and so there
will be no piety in heaven since there will be no unhappiness [*Cf.
Question [30], Article [1]]. Therefore piety is not a gift.
On the contrary, It is reckoned among the gifts in the eleventh
chapter of Isaias (verse 2) [Douay: 'godliness'] [*"Pietas," whence our
English word "pity," which is the same as mercy.]
I answer that, As stated above (FS, Question [68], Article [1];
FS, Question [69], Articles [1],3), the gifts of the Holy Ghost are
habitual dispositions of the soul, rendering it amenable to the motion
of the Holy Ghost. Now the Holy Ghost moves us to this effect among
others, of having a filial affection towards God, according to Rm.
8:15, "You have received the spirit of adoption of sons, whereby we
cry: Abba (Father)." And since it belongs properly to piety to pay duty
and worship to one's father, it follows that piety, whereby, at the
Holy Ghost's instigation, we pay worship and duty to God as our Father,
is a gift of the Holy Ghost.
Reply to Objection 1: The piety that pays duty and worship to a
father in the flesh is a virtue: but the piety that is a gift pays this
to God as Father.
Reply to Objection 2: To pay worship to God as Creator, as
religion does, is more excellent than to pay worship to one's father in
the flesh, as the piety that is a virtue does. But to pay worship to
God as Father is yet more excellent than to pay worship to God as
Creator and Lord. Wherefore religion is greater than the virtue of
piety: while the gift of piety is greater than religion.
Reply to Objection 3: As by the virtue of piety man pays duty
and worship not only to his father in the flesh, but also to all his
kindred on account of their being related to his father so by the gift
of piety he pays worship and duty not only to God, but also to all men
on account of their relationship to God. Hence it belongs to piety to
honor the saints, and not to contradict the Scriptures whether one
understands them or not, as Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. ii).
Consequently it also assists those who are in a state of unhappiness.
And although this act has no place in heaven, especially after the Day
of Judgment, yet piety will exercise its principal act, which is to
revere God with filial affection: for it is then above all that this
act will be fulfilled, according to Wis. 5:5, "Behold how they are
numbered among the children of God." The saints will also mutually
honor one another. Now, however, before the Judgment Day, the saints
have pity on those also who are living in this unhappy state.
Article: 2
Whether the second beatitude, "Blessed are the meek," corresponds to the gift of piety?
Objection 1: It seems that the second beatitude, "Blessed are
the meek," does not correspond to the gift of piety. For piety is the
gift corresponding to justice, to which rather belongs the fourth
beatitude, "Blessed are they that hunger and thirst after justice," or
the fifth beatitude, "Blessed are the merciful," since as stated above
(Article [1], Objection [3]), the works of mercy belong to piety.
Therefore the second beatitude does not pertain to the gift of piety.
Objection 2: Further, the gift of piety is directed by the gift
of knowledge, which is united to it in the enumeration of the gifts
(Is. 11). Now direction and execution extend to the same matter. Since,
then, the third beatitude, "Blessed are they that mourn," corresponds
to the gift of knowledge, it seems that the second beatitude
corresponds to piety.
Objection 3: Further, the fruits correspond to the beatitudes
and gifts, as stated above (FS, Question [70], Article [2]). Now among
the fruits, goodness and benignity seem to agree with piety rather than
mildness, which pertains to meekness. Therefore the second beatitude
does not correspond to the gift of piety.
On the contrary, Augustine says (De Serm. Dom. in Monte i): "Piety is becoming to the meek."
I answer that, In adapting the beatitudes to the gifts a twofold
congruity may be observed. One is according to the order in which they
are given, and Augustine seems to have followed this: wherefore he
assigns the first beatitude to the lowest gift, namely, fear, and the
second beatitude, "Blessed are the meek," to piety, and so on. Another
congruity may be observed in keeping with the special nature of each
gift and beatitude. In this way one must adapt the beatitudes to the
gifts according to their objects and acts: and thus the fourth and
fifth beatitudes would correspond to piety, rather than the second. Yet
the second beatitude has a certain congruity with piety, inasmuch as
meekness removes the obstacles to acts of piety.
This suffices for the Reply to the First Objection.
Reply to Objection 2: Taking the beatitudes and gifts according
to their proper natures, the same beatitude must needs correspond to
knowledge and piety: but taking them according to their order,
different beatitudes correspond to them, although a certain congruity
may be observed, as stated above.
Reply to Objection 3: In the fruits goodness and benignity may
be directly ascribed to piety; and mildness indirectly in so far as it
removes obstacles to acts of piety, as stated above.
Question: 122
OF THE PRECEPTS OF JUSTICE (SIX ARTICLES)
We must now consider the precepts of justice, under which head there are six points of inquiry:
(1) Whether the precepts of the decalogue are precepts of justice?
(2) Of the first precept of the decalogue;
(3) Of the second;
(4) Of the third;
(5) Of the fourth;
(6) Of the other six.
Article: 1
Whether the precepts of the decalogue are precepts of justice?
Objection 1: It seems that the precepts of the decalogue are not
precepts of justice. For the intention of a lawgiver is "to make the
citizens virtuous in respect of every virtue," as stated in Ethic. ii,
1. Wherefore, according to Ethic. v, 1, "the law prescribes about all
acts of all virtues." Now the precepts of the decalogue are the first.
principles of the whole Divine Law. Therefore the precepts of the
decalogue do not pertain to justice alone.
Objection 2: Further, it would seem that to justice belong
especially the judicial precepts, which are condivided with the moral
precepts, as stated above (FS, Question [99], Article [4]). But the
precepts of the decalogue are moral precepts, as stated above (FS,
Question [100], Article [3]). Therefore the precepts of the decalogue
are not precepts of justice.
Objection 3: Further, the Law contains chiefly precepts about
acts of justice regarding the common good, for instance about public
officers and the like. But there is no mention of these in the precepts
of the decalogue. Therefore it seems that the precepts of the decalogue
do not properly belong to justice.
Objection 4: Further, the precepts of the decalogue are divided
into two tables, corresponding to the love of God and the love of our
neighbor, both of which regard the virtue of charity. Therefore the
precepts of the decalogue belong to charity rather than to justice.
On the contrary, Seemingly justice is the sole virtue whereby we
are directed to another. Now we are directed to another by all the
precepts of the decalogue, as is evident if one consider each of them.
Therefore all the precepts of the decalogue pertain to justice.
I answer that, The precepts of the decalogue are the first
principles of the Law: and the natural reason assents to them at once,
as to principles that are most evident. Now it is altogether evident
that the notion of duty, which is essential to a precept, appears in
justice, which is of one towards another. Because in those matters that
relate to himself it would seem at a glance that man is master of
himself, and that he may do as he likes: whereas in matters that refer
to another it appears manifestly that a man is under obligation to
render to another that which is his due. Hence the precepts of the
decalogue must needs pertain to justice. Wherefore the first three
precepts are about acts of religion, which is the chief part of
justice; the fourth precept is about acts of piety, which is the second
part of justice; and the six remaining are about justice commonly so
called, which is observed among equals.
Reply to Objection 1: The intention of the law is to make all
men virtuous, but in a certain order, namely, by first of all giving
them precepts about those things where the notion of duty is most
manifest, as stated above.
Reply to Objection 2: The judicial precepts are determinations
of the moral precepts, in so far as these are directed to one's
neighbor, just as the ceremonial precepts are determinations of the
moral precepts in so far as these are directed to God. Hence neither
precepts are contained in the decalogue: and yet they are
determinations of the precepts of the decalogue, and therefore pertain
to justice.
Reply to Objection 3: Things that concern the common good must
needs be administered in different ways according to the difference of
men. Hence they were to be given a place not among the precepts of the
decalogue, but among the judicial precepts.
Reply to Objection 4: The precepts of the decalogue pertain to
charity as their end, according to 1 Tim. 1:5, "The end of the
commandment is charity": but they belong to justice, inasmuch as they
refer immediately to acts of justice.
Article: 2
Whether the first precept of the decalogue is fittingly expressed?
Objection 1: It seems that the first precept of the decalogue is
unfittingly expressed. For man is more bound to God than to his father
in the flesh, according to Heb. 12:9, "How much more shall we [Vulg.:
'shall we not much more'] obey the Father of spirits and live?" Now the
precept of piety, whereby man honors his father, is expressed
affirmatively in these words: "Honor thy father and thy mother." Much
more, therefore, should the first precept of religion, whereby all
honor God, be expressed affirmatively, especially as affirmation is
naturally prior to negation.
Objection 2: Further, the first precept of the decalogue
pertains to religion, as stated above (Article [1]). Now religion,
since it is one virtue, has one act. Yet in the first precept three
acts are forbidden: since we read first: "Thou shalt not have strange
gods before Me"; secondly, "Thou shalt not make to thyself any graven
thing"; and thirdly, "Thou shalt not adore them nor serve them."
Therefore the first precept is unfittingly expressed.
Objection 3: Further, Augustine says (De decem chord. ix) that
"the first precept forbids the sin of superstition." But there are many
wicked superstitions besides idolatry, as stated above (Question [92],
Article [2]). Therefore it was insufficient to forbid idolatry alone.
On the contrary, stands the authority of Scripture.
I answer that, It pertains to law to make men good, wherefore it
behooved the precepts of the Law to be set in order according to the
order of generation, the order, to wit, of man's becoming good. Now two
things must be observed in the order of generation. The first is that
the first part is the first thing to be established; thus in the
generation of an animal the first thing to be formed is the heart, and
in building a home the first thing to be set up is the foundation: and
in the goodness of the soul the first part is goodness of the will, the
result of which is that a man makes good use of every other goodness.
Now the goodness of the will depends on its object, which is its end.
Wherefore since man was to be directed to virtue by means of the Law,
the first thing necessary was, as it were, to lay the foundation of
religion, whereby man is duly directed to God, Who is the last end of
man's will.
The second thing to be observed in the order of generation
is that in the first place contraries and obstacles have to be removed.
Thus the farmer first purifies the soil, and afterwards sows his seed,
according to Jer. 4:3, "Break up anew your fallow ground, and sow not
upon thorns." Hence it behooved man, first of all to be instructed in
religion, so as to remove the obstacles to true religion. Now the chief
obstacle to religion is for man to adhere to a false god, according to
Mt. 6:24, "You cannot serve God and mammon." Therefore in the first
precept of the Law the worship of false gods is excluded.
Reply to Objection 1: In point of fact there is one affirmative
precept about religion, namely: "Remember that thou keep holy the
Sabbath Day." Still the negative precepts had to be given first, so
that by their means the obstacles to religion might be removed. For
though affirmation naturally precedes negation, yet in the process of
generation, negation, whereby obstacles are removed, comes first, as
stated in the Article. Especially is this true in matters concerning
God, where negation is preferable to affirmation, on account of our
insufficiency, as Dionysius observes (Coel. Hier. ii).
Reply to Objection 2: People worshiped strange gods in two ways.
For some served certain creatures as gods without having recourse to
images. Hence Varro says that for a long time the ancient Romans
worshiped gods without using images: and this worship is first
forbidden by the words, "Thou shalt not have strange gods." Among
others the worship of false gods was observed by using certain images:
and so the very making of images was fittingly forbidden by the words,
"Thou shalt not make to thyself any graven thing," as also the worship
of those same images, by the words, "Thou shalt not adore them," etc.
Reply to Objection 3: All other kinds of superstition proceed
from some compact, tacit or explicit, with the demons; hence all are
understood to be forbidden by the words, "Thou shalt not have strange
gods."
Article: 3
Whether the second precept of the decalogue is fittingly expressed?
Objection 1: It seems that the second precept of the decalogue
is unfittingly expressed. For this precept, "Thou shalt not take the
name of thy God in vain" is thus explained by a gloss on Ex. 20:7:
"Thou shalt not deem the Son of God to be a creature," so that it
forbids an error against faith. Again, a gloss on the words of Dt.
5:11, "Thou shalt not take the name of . . . thy God in vain, " adds,
i.e. "by giving the name of God to wood or stone," as though they
forbade a false confession of faith, which, like error, is an act of
unbelief. Now unbelief precedes superstition, as faith precedes
religion. Therefore this precept should have preceded the first,
whereby superstition is forbidden.
Objection 2: Further, the name of God is taken for many purposes
---for instance, those of praise, of working miracles, and generally
speaking in conjunction with all we say or do, according to Col. 3:17,
"All whatsoever you do in word or in work . . . do ye in the name of
the Lord." Therefore the precept forbidding the taking of God's name in
vain seems to be more universal than the precept forbidding
superstition, and thus should have preceded it.
Objection 3: Further, a gloss on Ex. 20:7 expounds the precept,
"Thou shalt not take the name of . . . thy God in vain," namely, by
swearing to nothing. Hence this precept would seem to forbid useless
swearing, that is to say, swearing without judgment. But false
swearing, which is without truth, and unjust swearing, which is without
justice, are much more grievous. Therefore this precept should rather
have forbidden them.
Objection 4: Further, blasphemy or any word or deed that is an
insult to God is much more grievous than perjury. Therefore blasphemy
and other like sins should rather have been forbidden by this precept.
Objection 5: Further, God's names are many. Therefore it should
not have been said indefinitely: "Thou shalt not take the name of . . .
thy God in vain."
On the contrary, stands the authority of Scripture.
I answer that, In one who is being instructed in virtue it is
necessary to remove obstacles to true religion before establishing him
in true religion. Now a thing is opposed to true religion in two ways.
First, by excess, when, to wit, that which belongs to religion is given
to others than to whom it is due, and this pertains to superstition.
Secondly, by lack, as it were, of reverence, when, to wit, God is
contemned, and this pertains to the vice of irreligion, as stated above
(Question [97], in the preamble, and in the Article that follows). Now
superstition hinders religion by preventing man from acknowledging God
so as to worship Him: and when a man's mind is engrossed in some undue
worship, he cannot at the same time give due worship to God, according
to Is. 28:20, "The bed is straitened, so that one must fall out," i.e.
either the true God or a false god must fall out from man's heart, "and
a short covering cannot cover both." On the other hand, irreligion
hinders religion by preventing man from honoring God after he has
acknowledged Him. Now one must first of all acknowledge God with a view
to worship, before honoring Him we have acknowledged.
For this reason the precept forbidding superstition is
placed before the second precept, which forbids perjury that pertains
to irreligion.
Reply to Objection 1: These expositions are mystical. The
literal explanation is that which is given Dt. 5:11: "Thou shalt not
take the name of . . . thy God in vain," namely, "by swearing on that
which is not [*Vulg.: 'for he shall not be unpunished that taketh His
name upon a vain thing']."
Reply to Objection 2: This precept does not forbid all taking of
the name of God, but properly the taking of God's name in confirmation
of a man's word by way of an oath, because men are wont to take God's
name more frequently in this way. Nevertheless we may understand that
in consequence all inordinate taking of the Divine name is forbidden by
this precept: and it is in this sense that we are to take the
explanation quoted in the First Objection.
Reply to Objection 3: To swear to nothing means to swear to that
which is not. This pertains to false swearing, which is chiefly called
perjury, as stated above (Question [98], Article [1], ad 3). For when a
man swears to that which is false, his swearing is vain in itself,
since it is not supported by the truth. on the other hand, when a man
swears without judgment, through levity, if he swear to the truth,
there is no vanity on the part of the oath itself, but only on the part
of the swearer.
Reply to Objection 4: Just as when we instruct a man in some
science, we begin by putting before him certain general maxims, even so
the Law, which forms man to virtue by instructing him in the precepts
of the decalogue, which are the first of all precepts, gave expression,
by prohibition or by command, to those things which are of most common
occurrence in the course of human life. Hence the precepts of the
decalogue include the prohibition of perjury, which is of more frequent
occurrence than blasphemy, since man does not fall so often into the
latter sin.
Reply to Objection 5: Reverence is due to the Divine names on
the part of the thing signified, which is one, and not on the part of
the signifying words, which are many. Hence it is expressed in the
singular: "Thou shalt not take the name of . . . thy God in vain":
since it matters not in which of God's names perjury is committed.
Article: 4
Whether the third precept of the decalogue, concerning the hallowing of the Sabbath, is fittingly expressed?
Objection 1: It seems that the third precept of the decalogue,
concerning the hallowing of the Sabbath, is unfittingly expressed. For
this, understood spiritually, is a general precept: since Bede in
commenting on Lk. 13:14, "The ruler of the synagogue being angry that
He had healed on the Sabbath," says (Comment. iv): "The Law forbids,
not to heal man on the Sabbath, but to do servile works," i.e. "to
burden oneself with sin." Taken literally it is a ceremonial precept,
for it is written (Ex. 31:13): "See that you keep My Sabbath: because
it is a sign between Me and you in your generations." Now the precepts
of the decalogue are both spiritual and moral. Therefore it is
unfittingly placed among the precepts of the decalogue.
Objection 2: Further, the ceremonial precepts of the Law contain
"sacred things, sacrifices, sacraments and observances," as stated
above (FS, Question [101], Article [4]). Now sacred things comprised
not only sacred days, but also sacred places and sacred vessels, and so
on. Moreover, there were many sacred days other than the Sabbath.
Therefore it was unfitting to omit all other ceremonial observances and
to mention only that of the Sabbath.
Objection 3: Further, whoever breaks a precept of the decalogue,
sins. But in the Old Law some who broke the observances of the Sabbath
did not sin---for instance, those who circumcised their sons on the
eighth day, and the priests who worked in the temple on the Sabbath.
Also Elias (3 Kgs. 19), who journeyed for forty days unto the mount of
God, Horeb, must have traveled on a Sabbath: the priests also who
carried the ark of the Lord for seven days, as related in Josue 7, must
be understood to have carried it on a Sabbath. Again it is written (Lk.
13:15): "Doth not every one of you on the Sabbath day loose his ox or
his ass . . . and lead them to water?" Therefore it is unfittingly
placed among the precepts of the decalogue.
Objection 4: Further, the precepts of the decalogue have to be
observed also under the New Law. Yet in the New Law this precept is not
observed, neither in the point of the Sabbath day, nor as to the Lord's
day, on which men cook their food, travel, fish, and do many like
things. Therefore the precept of the observance of the Sabbath is
unfittingly expressed.
On the contrary, stands the authority of Scripture.
I answer that, The obstacles to true religion being removed by
the first and second precepts of the decalogue, as stated above
(Articles [2],3), it remained for the third precept to be given whereby
man is established in true religion. Now it belongs to religion to give
worship to God: and just as the Divine scriptures teach the interior
worship under the guise of certain corporal similitudes, so is external
worship given to God under the guise of sensible signs. And since for
the most part man is induced to pay interior worship, consisting in
prayer and devotion, by the interior prompting of the Holy Ghost, a
precept of the Law as necessary respecting the exterior worship that
consists in sensible signs. Now the precepts of the decalogue are, so
to speak, first and common principles of the Law, and consequently the
third precept of the decalogue describes the exterior worship of God as
the sign of a universal boon that concerns all. This universal boon was
the work of the Creation of the world, from which work God is stated to
have rested on the seventh day: and sign of this we are commanded to
keep holy seventh day---that is, to set it aside as a day to be given
to God. Hence after the precept about the hallowing of the Sabbath the
reason for it is given: "For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth
. . . and rested on the seventh day."
Reply to Objection 1: The precept about hallowing the Sabbath,
understood literally, is partly oral and partly ceremonial. It is a
moral precept in the point of commanding man to aside a certain time to
be given to Divine things. For there is in man a natural inclination to
set aside a certain time for each necessary thing, such as refreshment
of the body, sleep, and so forth. Hence according to the dictate of
reason, man sets aside a certain time for spiritual refreshment, by
which man's mind is refreshed in God. And thus to have a certain time
set aside for occupying oneself with Divine things is the matter of a
moral precept. But, in so far as this precept specializes the time as a
sign representing the Creation of the world, it is a ceremonial
precept. Again, it is a ceremonial precept in its allegorical
signification, as representative of Christ's rest in the tomb on the
seventh day: also in its moral signification, as representing cessation
from all sinful acts, and the mind's rest in God, in which sense, too,
it is a general precept. Again, it is a ceremonial precept in its
analogical signification, as foreshadowing the enjoyment of God in
heaven. Hence the precept about hallowing the Sabbath is placed among
the precepts of the decalogue, as a moral, but not as a ceremonial
precept.
Reply to Objection 2: The other ceremonies of the Law are signs
of certain particular Divine works: but the observance of the Sabbath
is representative of a general boon, namely, the production of all
creatures. Hence it was fitting that it should be placed among the
general precepts of the decalogue, rather than any other ceremonial
precept of the Law.
Reply to Objection 3: Two things are to be observed in the
hallowing of the Sabbath. One of these is the end: and this is that man
occupy himself with Divine things, and is signified in the words:
"Remember that thou keep holy the Sabbath day." For in the Law those
things are said to be holy which are applied to the Divine worship. The
other thing is cessation from work, and is signified in the words (Ex.
20:11), "On the seventh day . . . thou shalt do no work." The kind of
work meant appears from Lev. 23:3, "You shall do no servile work on
that day [*Vulg.: 'You shall do no work on that day']." Now servile
work is so called from servitude: and servitude is threefold. One,
whereby man is the servant of sin, according to Jn. 8:34, "Whosoever
committeth sin is the servant of sin," and in this sense all sinful
acts are servile. Another servitude is whereby one man serves another.
Now one man serves another not with his mind but with his body, as
stated above (Question [104], Articles [5],6, ad 1). Wherefore in this
respect those works are called servile whereby one man serves another.
The third is the servitude of God; and in this way the work of worship,
which pertains to the service of God, may be called a servile work. In
this sense servile work is not forbidden on the Sabbath day, because
that would be contrary to the end of the Sabbath observance: since man
abstains from other works on the Sabbath day in order that he may
occupy himself with works connected with God's service. For this
reason, according to Jn. 7:23, "a man [*Vulg.: 'If a man,' etc.]
receives circumcision on the Sabbath day, that the law of Moses may not
be broken": and for this reason too we read (Mt. 12:5), that "on the
Sabbath days the priests in the temple break the Sabbath," i.e. do
corporal works on the Sabbath, "and are without blame." Accordingly,
the priests in carrying the ark on the Sabbath did not break the
precept of the Sabbath observance. In like manner it is not contrary to
the observance of the Sabbath to exercise any spiritual act, such as
teaching by word or writing. Wherefore a gloss on Num 28 says that
"smiths and like craftsmen rest on the Sabbath day, but the reader or
teacher of the Divine law does not cease from his work. Yet he profanes
not the Sabbath, even as the priests in the temple break the Sabbath,
and are without blame." On the other hand, those works that are called
servile in the first or second way are contrary to the observance of
the Sabbath, in so far as they hinder man from applying himself to
Divine things. And since man is hindered from applying himself to
Divine things rather by sinful than by lawful albeit corporal works, it
follows that to sin on a feast day is more against this precept than to
do some other but lawful bodily work. Hence Augustine says (De decem
chord. iii): "It would be better if the Jew did some useful work on his
farm than spent his time seditiously in the theatre: and their
womenfolk would do better to be making linen on the Sabbath than to be
dancing lewdly all day in their feasts of the new moon." It is not,
however, against this precept to sin venially on the Sabbath, because
venial sin does not destroy holiness.
Again, corporal works, not pertaining to the spiritual
worship of God, are said to be servile in so far as they belong
properly to servants; while they are not said to be servile, in so far
as they are common to those who serve and those who are free. Moreover,
everyone, be he servant or free, is bound to provide necessaries both
for himself and for his neighbor, chiefly in respect of things
pertaining to the well-being of the body, according to Prov. 24:11,
"Deliver them that are led to death": secondarily as regards avoiding
damage to one's property, according to Dt. 22:1, "Thou shalt not pass
by if thou seest thy brother's ox or his sheep go astray, but thou
shalt bring them back to thy brother." Hence a corporal work pertaining
to the preservation of one's own bodily well-being does not profane the
Sabbath: for it is not against the observance of the Sabbath to eat and
do such things as preserve the health of the body. For this reason the
Machabees did not profane the Sabbath when they fought in self-defense
on the Sabbath day (1 Macc. 2), nor Elias when he fled from the face of
Jezabel on the Sabbath. For this same reason our Lord (Mt. 12:3)
excused His disciples for plucking the ears of corn on account of the
need which they suffered. In like manner a bodily work that is directed
to the bodily well-being of another is not contrary to the observance
of the Sabbath: wherefore it is written (Jn. 7:23): "Are you angry at
Me because I have healed the whole man on the Sabbath day?" And again,
a bodily work that is done to avoid an imminent damage to some external
thing does not profane the Sabbath, wherefore our Lord says (Mt.
12:11): "What man shall there be among you, that hath one sheep, and if
the same fall into a pit on the Sabbath day, will he not take hold on
it and lift it up?"
Reply to Objection 4: In the New Law the observance of the
Lord's day took the place of the observance of the Sabbath, not by
virtue of the precept but by the institution of the Church and the
custom of Christian people. For this observance is not figurative, as
was the observance of the Sabbath in the Old Law. Hence the prohibition
to work on the Lord' day is not so strict as on the Sabbath: and
certain works are permitted on the Lord's day which were forbidden on
the Sabbath, such as the cooking of food and so forth. And again in the
New Law, dispensation is more easily granted than in the Old, in the
matter of certain forbidden works, on account of their necessity,
because the figure pertains to the protestation of truth, which it is
unlawful to omit even in small things; while works, considered in
themselves, are changeable in point of place and time.
Article: 5
Whether the fourth precept, about honoring one's parents, is fittingly expressed?
Objection 1: It seems that the fourth precept, about honoring
one's parents, is unfittingly expressed. For this is the precept
pertaining to piety. Now, just as piety is a part of justice, so are
observance, gratitude, and others of which we have spoken (Questions
[101],102, seq.). Therefore it seems that there should not have been
given a special precept of piety, as none is given regarding the others.
Objection 2: Further, piety pays worship not only to one's
parents, but also to one's country, and also to other blood kindred,
and to the well-wishers of our country, as stated above (Question
[101], Articles [1],2). Therefore it was unfitting for this precept to
mention only the honoring of one's father and mother.
Objection 3: Further, we owe our parents not merely honor but
also support. Therefore the mere honoring of one's parents is
unfittingly prescribed.
Objection 4: Further, sometimes those who honor their parents
die young, and on the contrary those who honor them not live a long
time. Therefore it was unfitting to supplement this precept with the
promise, "That thou mayest be long-lived upon earth."
On the contrary, stands the authority of Scripture.
I answer that, The precepts of the decalogue are directed to the
love of God and of our neighbor. Now to our parents, of all our
neighbors, we are under the greatest obligation. Hence, immediately
after the precepts directing us to God, a place is given to the precept
directing us to our parents, who are the particular principle of our
being, just as God is the universal principle: so that this precept has
a certain affinity to the precepts of the First Table.
Reply to Objection 1: As stated above (Question [101], Article
[2]), piety directs us to pay the debt due to our parents, a debt which
is common to all. Hence, since the precepts of the decalogue are
general precepts, they ought to contain some reference to piety rather
than to the other parts of justice, which regard some special debt.
Reply to Objection 2: The debt to one's parents precedes the
debt to one's kindred and country since it is because we are born of
our parents that our kindred and country belong to us. Hence, since the
precepts of the decalogue are the first precepts of the Law, they
direct man to his parents rather than to his country and other kindred.
Nevertheless this precept of honoring our parents is understood to
command whatever concerns the payment of debt to any person, as
secondary matter included in the principal matter.
Reply to Objection 3: Reverential honor is due to one's parents
as such, whereas support and so forth are due to them accidentally, for
instance, because they are in want, in slavery, or the like, as stated
above (Question [101], Article [2]). And since that which belongs to a
thing by nature precedes that which is accidental, it follows that
among the first precepts of the Law, which are the precepts of the
decalogue, there is a special precept of honoring our parents: and this
honor, as a kind of principle, is understood to comprise support and
whatever else is due to our parents.
Reply to Objection 4: A long life is promised to those who honor
their parents not only as to the life to come, but also as to the
present life, according to the saying of the Apostle (1 Tim. 4:8):
"Piety [Douay: 'godliness'] is profitable to all things, having promise
of the life that now is and of that which is to come." And with reason.
Because the man who is grateful for a favor deserves, with a certain
congruity, that the favor should be continued to him, and he who is
ungrateful for a favor deserves to lose it. Now we owe the favor of
bodily life to our parents after God: wherefore he that honors his
parents deserves the prolongation of his life, because he is grateful
for that favor: while he that honors not his parents deserves to be
deprived of life because he is ungrateful for the favor. However,
present goods or evils are not the subject of merit or demerit except
in so far as they are directed to a future reward, as stated above (FS,
Question [114], Article [12]). Wherefore sometimes in accordance with
the hidden design of the Divine judgments, which regard chiefly the
future reward, some, who are dutiful to their parents, are sooner
deprived of life, while others, who are undutiful to their parents,
live longer.
Article: 6
Whether the other six precepts of the decalogue are fittingly expressed?
Objection 1: It seems that the other six precepts of the
decalogue are unfittingly expressed. For it is not sufficient for
salvation that one refrain from injuring one's neighbor; but it is
required that one pay one's debts, according to Rm. 13:7, "Render . . .
to all men their dues." Now the last six precepts merely forbid one to
injure one's neighbor. Therefore these precepts are unfittingly
expressed.
Objection 2: Further, these precepts forbid murder, adultery,
stealing and bearing false witness. But many other injuries can be
inflicted on one's neighbor, as appears from those which have been
specified above (Questions [72], seq.). Therefore it seems that the
aforesaid precepts are unfittingly expressed.
Objection 3: Further, concupiscence may be taken in two ways.
First as denoting an act of the will, as in Wis. 6:21, "The desire
[concupiscentia] of wisdom bringeth to the everlasting kingdom":
secondly, as denoting an act of the sensuality, as in James 4:1, "From
whence are wars and contentions among you? Are they not . . . from your
concupiscences which war in your members?" Now the concupiscence of the
sensuality is not forbidden by a precept of the decalogue, otherwise
first movements would be mortal sins, as they would be against a
precept of the decalogue. Nor is the concupiscence of the will
forbidden, since it is included in every sin. Therefore it is unfitting
for the precepts of the decalogue to include some that forbid
concupiscence.
Objection 4: Further, murder is a more grievous sin than
adultery or theft. But there is no precept forbidding the desire of
murder. Therefore neither was it fitting to have precepts forbidding
the desire of theft and of adultery.
On the contrary, stands the authority of Scripture.
I answer that, Just as by the parts of justice a man pays that
which is due to certain definite persons, to whom he is bound for some
special reason, so too by justice properly so called he pays that which
is due to all in general. Hence, after the three precepts pertaining to
religion, whereby man pays what is due God, and after the fourth
precept pertaining to piety, whereby he pays what is due to his
parents---which duty includes the paying of all that is due for any
special reason---it was necessary in due sequence to give certain
precepts pertaining to justice properly so called, which pays to all
indifferently what is due to them.
Reply to Objection 1: Man is bound towards all persons in
general to inflict injury on no one: hence the negative precepts, which
forbid the doing of those injuries that can be inflicted on one's
neighbor, had to be given a place, as general precepts, among the
precepts of the decalogue. On the other hand, the duties we owe to our
neighbor are paid in different ways to different people: hence it did
not behoove to include affirmative precepts about those duties among
the precepts of the decalogue.
Reply to Objection 2: All other injuries that are inflicted on
our neighbor are reducible to those that are forbidden by these
precepts, as taking precedence of others in point of generality and
importance. For all injuries that are inflicted on the person of our
neighbor are understood to be forbidden under the head of murder as
being the principal of all. Those that are inflicted on a person
connected with one's neighbor, especially by way of lust, are
understood to be forbidden together with adultery: those that come
under the head of damage done to property are understood to be
forbidden together with theft: and those that are comprised under
speech, such as detractions, insults, and so forth, are understood to
be forbidden together with the bearing of false witness, which is more
directly opposed to justice.
Reply to Objection 3: The precepts forbidding concupiscence do
not include the prohibition of first movements of concupiscence, that
do not go farther than the bounds of sensuality. The direct object of
their prohibition is the consent of the will, which is directed to deed
or pleasure.
Reply to Objection 4: Murder in itself is an object not of
concupiscence but of horror, since it has not in itself the aspect of
good. On the other hand, adultery has the aspect of a certain kind of
good, i.e. of something pleasurable, and theft has an aspect of good,
i.e. of something useful: and good of its very nature has the aspect of
something concupiscible. Hence the concupiscence of theft and adultery
had to be forbidden by special precepts, but not the concupiscence of
murder.
FORTITUDE (Questions [123]-124)
TREATISE ON FORTITUDE AND TEMPERANCE (Questions [123]-170)
Question: 123
OF FORTITUDE (TWELVE ARTICLES)
After considering justice we must in due sequence consider
fortitude. We must (1) consider the virtue itself of fortitude; (2) its
parts; (3) the gift corresponding thereto; (4) the precepts that
pertain to it.
Concerning fortitude three things have to be considered:
(1) Fortitude itself; (2) its principal act, viz. martyrdom; (3) the
vices opposed to fortitude.
Under the first head there are twelve points of inquiry:
(1) Whether fortitude is a virtue?
(2) Whether it is a special virtue?
(3) Whether fortitude is only about fear and daring?
(4) Whether it is only about fear of death?
(5) Whether it is only in warlike matters?
(6) Whether endurance is its chief act?
(7) Whether its action is directed to its own good?
(8) Whether it takes pleasure in its own action?
(9) Whether fortitude deals chiefly with sudden occurrences?
(10) Whether it makes use of anger in its action?
(11) Whether it is a cardinal virtue?
(12) Of its comparison with the other cardinal virtues.
Article: 1
Whether fortitude is a virtue?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not a virtue. For the
Apostle says (2 Cor. 12:9): "Virtue is perfected in infirmity." But
fortitude is contrary to infirmity. Therefore fortitude is not a virtue.
Objection 2: Further, if it is a virtue, it is either
theological, intellectual, or moral. Now fortitude is not contained
among the theological virtues, nor among the intellectual virtues, as
may be gathered from what we have said above (FS, Question [57],
Article [2]; FS, Question [62], Article [3]). Neither, apparently, is
it contained among the moral virtues, since according to the
Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 7,8): "Some seem to be brave through
ignorance; or through experience, as soldiers," both of which cases
seem to pertain to act rather than to moral virtue, "and some are
called brave on account of certain passions"; for instance, on account
of fear of threats, or of dishonor, or again on account of sorrow,
anger, or hope. But moral virtue does not act from passion but from
choice, as stated above (FS, Question [55], Article [4]). Therefore
fortitude is not a virtue.
Objection 3: Further, human virtue resides chiefly in the soul,
since it is a "good quality of the mind," as stated above (Ethic. iii,
7,8). But fortitude, seemingly, resides in the body, or at least
results from the temperament of the body. Therefore it seems that
fortitude is not a virtue.
On the contrary, Augustine (De Morib. Eccl. xv, xxi, xxii) numbers fortitude among the virtues.
I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Ethic. ii, 6)
"virtue is that which makes its possessor good, and renders his work
good." Hence human virtue, of which we are speaking now, is that which
makes a man good, and tenders his work good. Now man's good is to be in
accordance with reason, according to Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv, 22).
Wherefore it belongs to human virtue to make man good, to make his work
accord with reason. This happens in three ways: first, by rectifying
reason itself, and this is done by the intellectual virtues; secondly,
by establishing the rectitude of reason in human affairs, and this
belongs to justice; thirdly, by removing the obstacles to the
establishment of this rectitude in human affairs. Now the human will is
hindered in two ways from following the rectitude of reason. First,
through being drawn by some object of pleasure to something other than
what the rectitude of reason requires; and this obstacle is removed by
the virtue of temperance. Secondly, through the will being disinclined
to follow that which is in accordance with reason, on account of some
difficulty that presents itself. In order to remove this obstacle
fortitude of the mind is requisite, whereby to resist the aforesaid
difficulty even as a man, by fortitude of body, overcomes and removes
bodily obstacles.
Hence it is evident that fortitude is a virtue, in so far as it conforms man to reason.
Reply to Objection 1: The virtue of the soul is perfected, not
in the infirmity of the soul, but in the infirmity of the body, of
which the Apostle was speaking. Now it belongs to fortitude of the mind
to bear bravely with infirmities of the flesh, and this belongs to the
virtue of patience or fortitude, as also to acknowledge one's own
infirmity, and this belongs to the perfection that is called humility.
Reply to Objection 2: Sometimes a person performs the exterior
act of a virtue without having the virtue, and from some other cause
than virtue. Hence the Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 8) mentions five ways
in which people are said to be brave by way of resemblance, through
performing acts of fortitude without having the virtue. This may be
done in three ways. First, because they tend to that which is difficult
as though it were not difficult: and this again happens in three ways,
for sometimes this is owing to ignorance, through not perceiving the
greatness of the danger; sometimes it is owing to the fact that one is
hopeful of overcoming dangers---when, for instance, one has often
experienced escape from danger; and sometimes this is owing to a
certain science and art, as in the case of soldiers who, through skill
and practice in the use of arms, think little of the dangers of battle,
as they reckon themselves capable of defending themselves against them;
thus Vegetius says (De Re Milit. i), "No man fears to do what he is
confident of having learned to do well." Secondly, a man performs an
act of fortitude without having the virtue, through the impulse of a
passion, whether of sorrow that he wishes to cast off, or again of
anger. Thirdly, through choice, not indeed of a due end, but of some
temporal advantage to be obtained, such as honor, pleasure, or gain, or
of some disadvantage to be avoided, such as blame, pain, or loss.
Reply to Objection 3: The fortitude of the soul which is
reckoned a virtue, as explained in the Reply to the First Objection, is
so called from its likeness to fortitude of the body. Nor is it
inconsistent with the notion of virtue, that a man should have a
natural inclination to virtue by reason of his natural temperament, as
stated above (FS, Question [63], Article [1]).
Article: 2
Whether fortitude is a special virtue?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not a special virtue.
For it is written (Wis. 7:7): "She teacheth temperance, and prudence,
and justice, and fortitude," where the text has "virtue" for
"fortitude." Since then the term "virtue" is common to all virtues, it
seems that fortitude is a general virtue.
Objection 2: Further, Ambrose says (De Offic. i): "Fortitude is
not lacking in courage, for alone she defends the honor of the virtues
and guards their behests. She it is that wages an inexorable war on all
vice, undeterred by toil, brave in face of dangers, steeled against
pleasures, unyielding to lusts, avoiding covetousness as a deformity
that weakens virtue"; and he says the same further on in connection
with other vices. Now this cannot apply to any special virtue.
Therefore fortitude is not a special virtue.
Objection 3: Further, fortitude would seem to derive its name
from firmness. But it belongs to every virtue to stand firm, as stated
in Ethic. ii. Therefore fortitude is a general virtue.
On the contrary, Gregory (Moral. xxii) numbers it among the other virtues.
I answer that, As stated above (FS, Question [61], Articles
[3],4), the term "fortitude" can be taken in two ways. First, as simply
denoting a certain firmness of mind, and in this sense it is a general
virtue, or rather a condition of every virtue, since as the Philosopher
states (Ethic. ii), it is requisite for every virtue to act firmly and
immovably. Secondly, fortitude may be taken to denote firmness only in
bearing and withstanding those things wherein it is most difficult to
be firm, namely in certain grave dangers. Therefore Tully says (Rhet.
ii), that "fortitude is deliberate facing of dangers and bearing of
toils." In this sense fortitude is reckoned a special virtue, because
it has a special matter.
Reply to Objection 1: According to the Philosopher (De Coelo i,
116) the word virtue refers to the extreme limit of a power. Now a
natural power is, in one sense, the power of resisting corruptions, and
in another sense is a principle of action, as stated in Metaph. v, 17.
And since this latter meaning is the more common, the term "virtue," as
denoting the extreme limit of such a power, is a common term, for
virtue taken in a general sense is nothing else than a habit whereby
one acts well. But as denoting the extreme limit of power in the first
sense, which sense is more specific, it is applied to a special virtue,
namely fortitude, to which it belongs to stand firm against all kinds
of assaults.
Reply to Objection 2: Ambrose takes fortitude in a broad sense,
as denoting firmness of mind in face of assaults of all kinds.
Nevertheless even as a special virtue with a determinate matter, it
helps to resist the assaults of all vices. For he that can stand firm
in things that are most difficult to bear, is prepared, in consequence,
to resist those which are less difficult.
Reply to Objection 3: This objection takes fortitude in the first sense.
Article: 3
Whether fortitude is about fear and dying?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not about fear and
daring. For Gregory says (Moral. vii): "The fortitude of the just man
is to overcome the flesh, to withstand self-indulgence, to quench the
lusts of the present life." Therefore fortitude seems to be about
pleasures rather than about fear and daring.
Objection 2: Further, Tully says (De Invent. Rhet. ii), that it
belongs to fortitude to face dangers and to bear toil. But this
seemingly has nothing to do with the passions of fear and daring, but
rather with a man's toilsome deeds and external dangers. Therefore
fortitude is not about fear and daring.
Objection 3: Further, not only daring, but also hope, is opposed
to fear, as stated above (FS, Question [45], Article [1], ad 2) in the
treatise on passions. Therefore fortitude should not be about daring
any more than about hope.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 7; iii, 9) that fortitude is about fear and daring.
I answer that, As stated above (Article [1]), it belongs to the
virtue of fortitude to remove any obstacle that withdraws the will from
following the reason. Now to be withdrawn from something difficult
belongs to the notion of fear, which denotes withdrawal from an evil
that entails difficulty, as stated above (FS, Question [42], Articles
[3],5) in the treatise on passions. Hence fortitude is chiefly about
fear of difficult things, which can withdraw the will from following
the reason. And it behooves one not only firmly to bear the assault of
these difficulties by restraining fear, but also moderately to
withstand them, when, to wit, it is necessary to dispel them altogether
in order to free oneself therefrom for the future, which seems to come
under the notion of daring. Therefore fortitude is about fear and
daring, as curbing fear and moderating daring.
Reply to Objection 1: Gregory is speaking then of the fortitude
of the just man, as to its common relation to all virtues. Hence he
first of all mentions matters pertaining to temperance, as in the words
quoted, and then adds that which pertains properly to fortitude as a
special virtue, by saying: "To love the trials of this life for the
sake of an eternal reward."
Reply to Objection 2: Dangers and toils do not withdraw the will
from the course of reason, except in so far as they are an object of
fear. Hence fortitude needs to be immediately about fear and daring,
but mediately about dangers and toils, these being the objects of those
passions.
Reply to Objection 3: Hope is opposed to fear on the part of the
object, for hope is of good, fear of evil: whereas daring is about the
same object, and is opposed to fear by way of approach and withdrawal,
as stated above (FS, Question [45], Article [1]). And since fortitude
properly regards those temporal evils that withdraw one from virtue, as
appears from Tully's definition quoted in the Second Objection, it
follows that fortitude properly is about fear and daring and not about
hope, except in so far as it is connected with daring, as stated above
(FS, Question [45], Article [2]).
Article: 4
Whether fortitude is only about dangers of death?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not only about dangers
of death. For Augustine says (De Morib. Eccl. xv) that "fortitude is
love bearing all things readily for the sake of the object beloved":
and (Music. vi) he says that fortitude is "the love which dreads no
hardship, not even death." Therefore fortitude is not only about danger
of death, but also about other afflictions.
Objection 2: Further, all the passions of the soul need to be
reduced to a mean by some virtue. Now there is no other virtue reducing
fears to a mean. Therefore fortitude is not only about fear of death,
but also about other fears.
Objection 3: Further, no virtue is about extremes. But fear of
death is about an extreme, since it is the greatest of fears, as stated
in Ethic. iii. Therefore the virtue of fortitude is not about fear of
death.
On the contrary, Andronicus says that "fortitude is a virtue of
the irascible faculty that is not easily deterred by the fear of death."
I answer that, As stated above (Article [3]), it belongs to the
virtue of fortitude to guard the will against being withdrawn from the
good of reason through fear of bodily evil. Now it behooves one to hold
firmly the good of reason against every evil whatsoever, since no
bodily good is equivalent to the good of the reason. Hence fortitude of
soul must be that which binds the will firmly to the good of reason in
face of the greatest evils: because he that stands firm against great
things, will in consequence stand firm against less things, but not
conversely. Moreover it belongs to the notion of virtue that it should
regard something extreme: and the most fearful of all bodily evils is
death, since it does away all bodily goods. Wherefore Augustine says
(De Morib. Eccl. xxii) that "the soul is shaken by its fellow body,
with fear of toil and pain, lest the body be stricken and harassed with
fear of death lest it be done away and destroyed." Therefore the virtue
of fortitude is about the fear of dangers of death.
Reply to Objection 1: Fortitude behaves well in bearing all
manner of adversity: yet a man is not reckoned brave simply through
bearing any kind of adversity, but only through bearing well even the
greatest evils; while through bearing others he is said to be brave in
a restricted sense.
Reply to Objection 2: Since fear is born of love, any virtue
that moderates the love of certain goods must in consequence moderate
the fear of contrary evils: thus liberality, which moderates the love
of money, as a consequence, moderates the fear of losing it, and the
same is the case with temperance and other virtues. But to love one's
own life is natural: and hence the necessity of a special virtue
modifying the fear of death.
Reply to Objection 3: In virtues the extreme consists in
exceeding right reason: wherefore to undergo the greatest dangers in
accordance with reason is not contrary to virtue.
Article: 5
Whether fortitude is properly about dangers of death in battle?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not properly about
dangers of death in battle. For martyrs above all are commended for
their fortitude. But martyrs are not commended in connection with
battle. Therefore fortitude is not properly about dangers of death in
battle.
Objection 2: Further, Ambrose says (De Offic. i) that "fortitude
is applicable both to warlike and to civil matters": and Tully (De
Offic. i), under the heading, "That it pertains to fortitude to excel
in battle rather than in civil life," says: "Although not a few think
that the business of war is of greater importance than the affairs of
civil life, this opinion must be qualified: and if we wish to judge the
matter truly, there are many things in civil life that are more
important and more glorious than those connected with war." Now greater
fortitude is about greater things. Therefore fortitude is not properly
concerned with death in battle.
Objection 3: Further, war is directed to the preservation of a
country's temporal peace: for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix) that
"wars are waged in order to insure peace." Now it does not seem that
one ought to expose oneself to the danger of death for the temporal
peace of one's country, since this same peace is the occasion of much
license in morals. Therefore it seems that the virtue of fortitude is
not about the danger of death in battle.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii) that fortitude is chiefly about death in battle.
I answer that, As stated above (Article [4]), fortitude
strengthens a man's mind against the greatest danger, which is that of
death. Now fortitude is a virtue; and it is essential to virtue ever to
tend to good; wherefore it is in order to pursue some good that man
does not fly from the danger of death. But the dangers of death arising
out of sickness, storms at sea, attacks from robbers, and the like, do
not seem to come on a man through his pursuing some good. on the other
hand, the dangers of death which occur in battle come to man directly
on account of some good, because, to wit, he is defending the common
good by a just fight. Now a just fight is of two kinds. First, there is
the general combat, for instance, of those who fight in battle;
secondly, there is the private combat, as when a judge or even private
individual does not refrain from giving a just judgment through fear of
the impending sword, or any other danger though it threaten death.
Hence it belongs to fortitude to strengthen the mind against dangers of
death, not only such as arise in a general battle, but also such as
occur in singular combat, which may be called by the general name of
battle. Accordingly it must be granted that fortitude is properly about
dangers of death occurring in battle.
Moreover, a brave man behaves well in face of danger of
any other kind of death; especially since man may be in danger of any
kind of death on account of virtue: thus may a man not fail to attend
on a sick friend through fear of deadly infection, or not refuse to
undertake a journey with some godly object in view through fear of
shipwreck or robbers.
Reply to Objection 1: Martyrs face the fight that is waged
against their own person, and this for the sake of the sovereign good
which is God; wherefore their fortitude is praised above all. Nor is it
outside the genus of fortitude that regards warlike actions, for which
reason they are said to have been valiant in battle. [*Office of
Martyrs, ex. Heb. xi. 34.]
Reply to Objection 2: Personal and civil business is
differentiated from the business of war that regards general wars.
However, personal and civil affairs admit of dangers of death arising
out of certain conflicts which are private wars, and so with regard to
these also there may be fortitude properly so called.
Reply to Objection 3: The peace of the state is good in itself,
nor does it become evil because certain persons make evil use of it.
For there are many others who make good use of it; and many evils
prevented by it, such as murders and sacrileges, are much greater than
those which are occasioned by it, and which belong chiefly to the sins
of the flesh.
Article: 6
Whether endurance is the chief act of fortitude?
Objection 1: It seems that endurance is not the chief act of
fortitude. For virtue "is about the difficult and the good" (Ethic. ii,
3). Now it is more difficult to attack than to endure. Therefore
endurance is not the chief act of fortitude.
Objection 2: Further, to be able to act on another seems to
argue greater power than not to be changed by another. Now to attack is
to act on another, and to endure is to persevere unchangeably. Since
then fortitude denotes perfection of power, it seems that it belongs to
fortitude to attack rather than to endure.
Objection 3: Further, one contrary is more distant from the
other than its mere negation. Now to endure is merely not to fear,
whereas to attack denotes a movement contrary to that of fear, since it
implies pursuit. Since then fortitude above all withdraws the mind from
fear, it seems that it regards attack rather than endurance.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 9) that
"certain persons are" said to be brave chiefly because they endure
affliction.
I answer that, As stated above (Article [3]), and according to
the Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 9), "fortitude is more concerned to allay
fear, than to moderate daring." For it is more difficult to allay fear
than to moderate daring, since the danger which is the object of daring
and fear, tends by its very nature to check daring, but to increase
fear. Now to attack belongs to fortitude in so far as the latter
moderates daring, whereas to endure follows the repression of fear.
Therefore the principal act of fortitude is endurance, that is to stand
immovable in the midst of dangers rather than to attack them.
Reply to Objection 1: Endurance is more difficult than
aggression, for three reasons. First, because endurance seemingly
implies that one is being attacked by a stronger person, whereas
aggression denotes that one is attacking as though one were the
stronger party; and it is more difficult to contend with a stronger
than with a weaker. Secondly, because he that endures already feels the
presence of danger, whereas the aggressor looks upon danger as
something to come; and it is more difficult to be unmoved by the
present than by the future. Thirdly, because endurance implies length
of time, whereas aggression is consistent with sudden movements; and it
is more difficult to remain unmoved for a long time, than to be moved
suddenly to something arduous. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii,
8) that "some hurry to meet danger, yet fly when the danger is present;
this is not the behavior of a brave man."
Reply to Objection 2: Endurance denotes indeed a passion of the
body, but an action of the soul cleaving most resolutely [fortissime]
to good, the result being that it does not yield to the threatening
passion of the body. Now virtue concerns the soul rather than the body.
Reply to Objection 3: He that endures fears not, though he is
confronted with the cause of fear, whereas this cause is not present to
the aggressor.
Article: 7
Whether the brave man acts for the sake of the good of his habit?
Objection 1: It seems that the brave man does not act for the
sake of the good of his habit. For in matters of action the end, though
first in intention, is last in execution. Now the act of fortitude, in
the order of execution, follows the habit of fortitude. Therefore it is
impossible for the brave man to act for the sake of the good of his
habit.
Objection 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. xiii): "We love
virtues for the sake of happiness, and yet some make bold to counsel us
to be virtuous," namely by saying that we should desire virtue for its
own sake, "without loving happiness. If they succeed in their endeavor,
we shall surely cease to love virtue itself, since we shall no longer
love that for the sake of which alone we love virtue." But fortitude is
a virtue. Therefore the act of fortitude is directed not to fortitude
but to happiness.
Objection 3: Further, Augustine says (De Morib. Eccl. xv) that
"fortitude is love ready to bear all things for God's sake." Now God is
not the habit of fortitude, but something better, since the end must
needs be better than what is directed to the end. Therefore the brave
man does not act for the sake of the good of his habit.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 7) that "to
the brave man fortitude itself is a good": and such is his end.
I answer that, An end is twofold: proximate and ultimate. Now
the proximate end of every agent is to introduce a likeness of that
agent's form into something else: thus the end of fire in heating is to
introduce the likeness of its heat into some passive matter, and the
end of the builder is to introduce into matter the likeness of his art.
Whatever good ensues from this, if it be intended, may be called the
remote end of the agent. Now just as in things made, external matter is
fashioned by art, so in things done, human deeds are fashioned by
prudence. Accordingly we must conclude that the brave man intends as
his proximate end to reproduce in action a likeness of his habit, for
he intends to act in accordance with his habit: but his remote end is
happiness or God.
This suffices for the Replies to the Objections: for the
First Objection proceeds as though the very essence of a habit were its
end, instead of the likeness of the habit in act, as stated. The other
two objections consider the ultimate end.
Article: 8
Whether the brave man delights in his act?
Objection 1: It seems that the brave man delights in his act.
For "delight is the unhindered action of a connatural habit" (Ethic. x,
4,6,8). Now the brave deed proceeds from a habit which acts after the
manner of nature. Therefore the brave man takes pleasure in his act.
Objection 2: Further, Ambrose, commenting on Gal. 5:22, "But the
fruit of the Spirit is charity, joy, peace," says that deeds of virtue
are called "fruits because they refresh man's mind with a holy and pure
delight." Now the brave man performs acts of virtue. Therefore he takes
pleasure in his act.
Objection 3: Further, the weaker is overcome by the stronger.
Now the brave man has a stronger love for the good of virtue than for
his own body, which he exposes to the danger of death. Therefore the
delight in the good of virtue banishes the pain of the body; and
consequently the brave man does all things with pleasure.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 9) that "the brave man seems to have no delight in his act."
I answer that, As stated above (FS, Question [31], Articles
[3],4,5) where we were treating of the passions, pleasure is twofold;
one is bodily, resulting from bodily contact, the other is spiritual,
resulting from an apprehension of the soul. It is the latter which
properly results from deeds of virtue, since in them we consider the
good of reason. Now the principal act of fortitude is to endure, not
only certain things that are unpleasant as apprehended by the
soul---for instance, the loss of bodily life, which the virtuous man
loves not only as a natural good, but also as being necessary for acts
of virtue, and things connected with them---but also to endure things
unpleasant in respect of bodily contact, such as wounds and blows.
Hence the brave man, on one side, has something that affords him
delight, namely as regards spiritual pleasure, in the act itself of
virtue and the end thereof: while, on the other hand, he has cause for
both spiritual sorrow, in the thought of losing his life, and for
bodily pain. Hence we read (2 Macc. 6:30) that Eleazar said: "I suffer
grievous pains in body: but in soul am well content to suffer these
things because I fear Thee."
Now the sensible pain of the body makes one insensible to
the spiritual delight of virtue, without the copious assistance of
God's grace, which has more strength to raise the soul to the Divine
things in which it delights, than bodily pains have to afflict it. Thus
the Blessed Tiburtius, while walking barefoot on the burning coal, said
that he felt as though he were walking on roses.
Yet the virtue of fortitude prevents the reason from being
entirely overcome by bodily pain. And the delight of virtue overcomes
spiritual sorrow, inasmuch as a man prefers the good of virtue to the
life of the body and to whatever appertains thereto. Hence the
Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 3; iii, 9) that "it is not necessary for a
brave man to delight so as to perceive his delight, but it suffices for
him not to be sad."
Reply to Objection 1: The vehemence of the action or passion of
one power hinders the action of another power: wherefore the pain in
his senses hinders the mind of the brave man from feeling delight in
its proper operation.
Reply to Objection 2: Deeds of virtue are delightful chiefly on
account of their end; yet they can be painful by their nature, and this
is principally the case with fortitude. Hence the Philosopher says
(Ethic. iii, 9) that "to perform deeds with pleasure does not happen in
all virtues, except in so far as one attains the end."
Reply to Objection 3: In the brave man spiritual sorrow is
overcome by the delight of virtue. Yet since bodily pain is more
sensible, and the sensitive apprehension is more in evidence to man, it
follows that spiritual pleasure in the end of virtue fades away, so to
speak, in the presence of great bodily pain.
Article: 9
Whether fortitude deals chiefly with sudden occurrences?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude does not deal chiefly with
sudden occurrences. For it would seem that things occur suddenly when
they are unforeseen. But Tully says (De Invent. Rhet. ii) that
"fortitude is the deliberate facing of danger, and bearing of toil."
Therefore fortitude does not deal chiefly with sudden happenings.
Objection 2: Further, Ambrose says (De Offic. i): "The brave man
is not unmindful of what may be likely to happen; he takes measures
beforehand, and looks out as from the conning-tower of his mind, so as
to encounter the future by his forethought, lest he should say
afterwards: This befell me because I did not think it could possibly
happen." But it is not possible to be prepared for the future in the
case of sudden occurrences. Therefore the operation of fortitude is not
concerned with sudden happenings.
Objection 3: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 8) that
the "brave man is of good hope." But hope looks forward to the future,
which is inconsistent with sudden occurrences. Therefore the operation
of fortitude is not concerned with sudden happenings.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 8) that "fortitude is chiefly about sudden dangers of death."
I answer that, Two things must be considered in the operation of
fortitude. One is in regard to its choice: and thus fortitude is not
about sudden occurrences: because the brave man chooses to think
beforehand of the dangers that may arise, in order to be able to
withstand them, or to bear them more easily: since according to Gregory
(Hom. xxv in Evang.), "the blow that is foreseen strikes with less
force, and we are able more easily to bear earthly wrongs, if we are
forearmed with the shield of foreknowledge." The other thing to be
considered in the operation of fortitude regards the display of the
virtuous habit: and in this way fortitude is chiefly about sudden
occurrences, because according to the Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 8) the
habit of fortitude is displayed chiefly in sudden dangers: since a
habit works by way of nature. Wherefore if a person without forethought
does that which pertains to virtue, when necessity urges on account of
some sudden danger, this is a very strong proof that habitual fortitude
is firmly seated in his mind.
Yet is it possible for a person even without the habit of
fortitude, to prepare his mind against danger by long forethought: in
the same way as a brave man prepares himself when necessary. This
suffices for the Replies to the Objections.
Article: 10
Whether the brave man makes use of anger in his action?
Objection 1: It seems that the brave man does not use anger in
his action. For no one should employ as an instrument of his action
that which he cannot use at will. Now man cannot use anger at will, so
as to take it up and lay it aside when he will. For, as the Philosopher
says (De Memoria ii), when a bodily passion is in movement, it does not
rest at once just as one wishes. Therefore a brave man should not
employ anger for his action.
Objection 2: Further, if a man is competent to do a thing by
himself, he should not seek the assistance of something weaker and more
imperfect. Now the reason is competent to achieve by itself deeds of
fortitude, wherein anger is impotent: wherefore Seneca says (De Ira i):
"Reason by itself suffices not only to make us prepared for action but
also to accomplish it. In fact is there greater folly than for reason
to seek help from anger? the steadfast from the unstaid, the trusty
from the untrustworthy, the healthy from the sick?" Therefore a brave
man should not make use of anger.
Objection 3: Further, just as people are more earnest in doing
deeds of fortitude on account of anger, so are they on account of
sorrow or desire; wherefore the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 8) that
wild beasts are incited to face danger through sorrow or pain, and
adulterous persons dare many things for the sake of desire. Now
fortitude employs neither sorrow nor desire for its action. Therefore
in like manner it should not employ anger.
On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 8) that "anger helps the brave."
I answer that, As stated above (FS, Question [24], Article [2]),
concerning anger and the other passions there was a difference of
opinion between the Peripatetics and the Stoics. For the Stoics
excluded anger and all other passions of the soul from the mind of a
wise or good man: whereas the Peripatetics, of whom Aristotle was the
chief, ascribed to virtuous men both anger and the other passions of
the soul albeit modified by reason. And possibly they differed not in
reality but in their way of speaking. For the Peripatetics, as stated
above (FS, Question [24], Article [2]), gave the name of passions to
all the movements of the sensitive appetite, however they may comport
themselves. And since the sensitive appetite is moved by the command of
reason, so that it may cooperate by rendering action more prompt, they
held that virtuous persons should employ both anger and the other
passions of the soul, modified according to the dictate of reason. On
the other hand, the Stoics gave the name of passions to certain
immoderate emotions of the sensitive appetite, wherefore they called
them sicknesses or diseases, and for this reason severed them
altogether from virtue.
Accordingly the brave man employs moderate anger for his action, but not immoderate anger.
Reply to Objection 1: Anger that is moderated in accordance with
reason is subject to the command of reason: so that man uses it at his
will, which would not be the case were it immoderate.
Reply to Objection 2: Reason employs anger for its action, not
as seeking its assistance, but because it uses the sensitive appetite
as an instrument, just as it uses the members of the body. Nor is it
unbecoming for the instrument to be more imperfect than the principal
agent, even as the hammer is more imperfect than the smith. Moreover,
Seneca was a follower of the Stoics, and the above words were aimed by
him directly at Aristotle.
Reply to Objection 3: Whereas fortitude, as stated above
(Article [6]), has two acts, namely endurance and aggression, it
employs anger, not for the act of endurance, because the reason by
itself performs this act, but for the act of aggression, for which it
employs anger rather than the other passions, since it belongs to anger
to strike at the cause of sorrow, so that it directly cooperates with
fortitude in attacking. On the other hand, sorrow by its very nature
gives way to the thing that hurts; though accidentally it helps in
aggression, either as being the cause of anger, as stated above (FS,
Question [47], Article [3]), or as making a person expose himself to
danger in order to escape from sorrow. In like manner desire, by its
very nature, tends to a pleasurable good, to which it is directly
contrary to withstand danger: yet accidentally sometimes it helps one
to attack, in so far as one prefers to risk dangers rather than lack
pleasure. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 5): "Of all the cases
in which fortitude arises from a passion, the most natural is when a
man is brave through anger, making his choice and acting for a
purpose," i.e. for a due end; "this is true fortitude."
Article: 11
Whether fortitude is a cardinal virtue?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude is not a cardinal virtue.
For, as stated above (Article [10]), anger is closely allied with
fortitude. Now anger is not accounted a principal passion; nor is
daring which belongs to fortitude. Therefore neither should fortitude
be reckoned a cardinal virtue.
Objection 2: Further, the object of virtue is good. But the
direct object of fortitude is not good, but evil, for it is endurance
of evil and toil, as Tully says (De Invent. Rhet. ii). Therefore
fortitude is not a cardinal virtue.
Objection 3: Further, the cardinal virtues are about those
things upon which human life is chiefly occupied, just as a door turns
upon a hinge [cardine]. But fortitude is about dangers of death which
are of rare occurrence in human life. Therefore fortitude should not be
reckoned a cardinal or principal virtue.
On the contrary, Gregory (Moral. xxii), Ambrose in his
commentary on Lk. 6:20, and Augustine (De Moribus Eccl. xv), number
fortitude among the four cardinal or principal virtues.
I answer that, As stated above (FS, Question [61], Articles
[3],4), those virtues are said to be cardinal or principal which have a
foremost claim to that which belongs to the virtues in common. And
among other conditions of virtue in general one is that it is stated to
"act steadfastly," according to Ethic. ii, 4. Now fortitude above all
lays claim to praise for steadfastness. Because he that stands firm is
so much the more praised, as he is more strongly impelled to fall or
recede. Now man is impelled to recede from that which is in accordance
with reason, both by the pleasing good and the displeasing evil. But
bodily pain impels him more strongly than pleasure. For Augustine says
(Questions [83], qu. 36): "There is none that does not shun pain more
than he desires pleasure. For we perceive that even the most untamed
beasts are deterred from the greatest pleasures by the fear of pain."
And among the pains of the mind and dangers those are mostly feared
which lead to death, and it is against them that the brave man stands
firm. Therefore fortitude is a cardinal virtue.
Reply to Objection 1: Daring and anger do not cooperate with
fortitude in its act of endurance, wherein its steadfastness is chiefly
commended: for it is by that act that the brave man curbs fear, which
is a principal passion, as stated above (FS, Question [25], Article
[4]).
Reply to Objection 2: Virtue is directed to the good of reason
which it behooves to safeguard against the onslaught of evils. And
fortitude is directed to evils of the body, as contraries which it
withstands, and to the good of reason, as the end, which it intends to
safeguard.
Reply to Objection 3: Though dangers of death are of rare
occurrence, yet the occasions of those dangers occur frequently, since
on account of justice which he pursues, and also on account of other
good deeds, man encounters mortal adversaries.
Article: 12
Whether fortitude excels among all other virtues?
Objection 1: It seems that fortitude excels among all other
virtues. For Ambrose says (De Offic. i): "Fortitude is higher, so to
speak, than the rest."
Objection 2: Further, virtue is about that which is difficult
and good. But fortitude is about most difficult things. Therefore it is
the greatest of the virtues.
Objection 3: Further, the person of a man is more excellent than
his possessions. But fortitude is about a man's person, for it is this
that a man exposes to the danger of death for the good of virtue:
whereas justice and the other moral virtues are about other and
external things. Therefore fortitude is the chief of the moral virtues.
Objection 4: On the contrary, Tully says (De Offic. i): "Justice
is the most resplendent of the virtues and gives its name to a good
man."
Objection 5: Further, the Philosopher says (Rhet. i, 19): "Those
virtues must needs be greatest which are most profitable to others."
Now liberality seems to be more useful than fortitude. Therefore it is
a greater virtue.
I answer that, As Augustine says (De Trin. vi), "In things that
are great, but not in bulk, to be great is to be good": wherefore the
better a virtue the greater it is. Now reason's good is man's good,
according to Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) prudence, since it is a
perfection of reason, has the good essentially: while justice effects
this good, since it belongs to justice to establish the order of reason
in all human affairs: whereas the other virtues safeguard this good,
inasmuch as they moderate the passions, lest they lead man away from
reason's good. As to the order of the latter, fortitude holds the first
place, because fear of dangers of death has the greatest power to make
man recede from the good of reason: and after fortitude comes
temperance, since also pleasures of touch excel all others in hindering
the good of reason. Now to be a thing essentially ranks before
effecting it, and the latter ranks before safeguarding it by removing
obstacles thereto. Wherefore among the cardinal virtues, prudence ranks
first, justice second, fortitude third, temperance fourth, and after
these the other virtues.
Reply to Objection 1: Ambrose places fortitude before the other
virtues, in respect of a certain general utility, inasmuch as it is
useful both in warfare, and in matters relating to civil or home life.
Hence he begins by saying (De Offic. i): "Now we come to treat of
fortitude, which being higher so to speak than the others, is
applicable both to warlike and to civil matters."
Reply to Objection 2: Virtue essentially regards the good rather
than the difficult. Hence the greatness of a virtue is measured
according to its goodness rather than its difficulty.
Reply to Objection 3: A man does not expose his person to
dangers of death except in order to safeguard justice: wherefore the
praise awarded to fortitude depends somewhat on justice. Hence Ambrose
says (De Offic. i) that "fortitude without justice is an occasion of
injustice; since the stronger a man is the more ready is he to oppress
the weaker."
The Fourth argument is granted.
Reply to Objection 5: Liberality is useful in conferring certain
particular favors: whereas a certain general utility attaches to
fortitude, since it safeguards the whole order of justice. Hence the
Philosopher says (Rhet. i, 9) that "just and brave men are most
beloved, because they are most useful in war and peace."
Question: 124
OF MARTYRDOM (FIVE ARTICLES)
We must now consider martyrdom, under which head there are five points of inquiry:
(1) Whether martyrdom is an act of virtue?
(2) Of what virtue is it the act?
(3) Concerning the perfection of this act;
(4) The pain of martyrdom;
(5) Its cause.
Article: 1
Whether martyrdom is an act of virtue?
Objection 1: It seems that martyrdom is not an act of virtue.
For all acts of virtue are voluntary. But martyrdom is sometimes not
voluntary, as in the case of the Innocents who were slain for Christ's
sake, and of whom Hillary says (Super Matth. i) that "they attained the
ripe age of eternity through the glory of martyrdom." Therefore
martyrdom is not an act of virtue.
Objection 2: Further, nothing unlawful is an act of virtue. Now
it is unlawful to kill oneself, as stated above (Question [64], Article
[5]), and yet martyrdom is achieved by so doing: for Augustine says (De
Civ. Dei i) that "during persecution certain holy women, in order to
escape from those who threatened their chastity, threw themselves into
a river, and so ended their lives, and their martyrdom is honored in
the Catholic Church with most solemn veneration." Therefore martyrdom
is not an act of virtue.
Objection 3: Further, it is praiseworthy to offer oneself to do
an act of virtue. But it is not praiseworthy to court martyrdom, rather
would it seem to be presumptuous and rash. Therefore martyrdom is not
an act of virtue.
On the contrary, The reward of beatitude is not due save to acts
of virtue. Now it is due to martyrdom, since it is written (Mt. 5:10):
"Blessed are they that suffer persecution for justice' sake, for theirs
is the kingdom of heaven." Therefore martyrdom is an act of virtue.
I answer that, As stated above (Question [123], Articles [1],3),
it belongs to virtue to safeguard man in the good of reason. Now the
good of reason consists in the truth as its proper object, and in
justice as its proper effect, as shown above (Question [109], Articles
[1],2; Question [123], Article [12]). And martyrdom consists
essentially in standing firmly to truth and justice against the
assaults of persecution. Hence it is evident that martyrdom is an act
of virtue.
Reply to Objection 1: Some have said that in the case of the
Innocents the use of their free will was miraculously accelerated, so
that they suffered martyrdom even voluntarily. Since, however,
Scripture contains no proof of this, it is better to say that these
babes in being slain obtained by God's grace the glory of martyrdom
which others acquire by their own will. For the shedding of one's blood
for Christ's sake takes the place of Baptism. Wherefore just as in the
case of baptized children the merit of Christ is conducive to the
acquisition of glory through the baptismal grace, so in those who were
slain for Christ's sake the merit of Christ's martyrdom is conducive to
the acquisition of the martyr's palm. Hence Augustine says in a sermon
on the Epiphany (De Diversis lxvi), as though he were addressing them:
"A man that does not believe that children are benefited by the baptism
of Christ will doubt of your being crowned in suffering for Christ. You
were not old enough to believe in Christ's future sufferings, but you
had a body wherein you could endure suffering of Christ Who was to
suffer."
Reply to Objection 2: Augustine says (De Civ. Dei i) that
"possibly the Church was induced by certain credible witnesses of
Divine authority thus to honor the memory of those holy women [*Cf.
Question [64], Article [1], ad 2]."
Reply to Objection 3: The precepts of the Law are about acts of
virtue. Now it has been stated (FS, Question [108], Article [1], ad 4)
that some of the precepts of the Divine Law are to be understood in
reference to the preparation of the mind, in the sense that man ought
to be prepared to do such and such a thing, whenever expedient. In the
same way certain things belong to an act of virtue as regards the
preparation of the mind, so that in such and such a case a man should
act according to reason. And this observation would seem very much to
the point in the case of martyrdom, which consists in the right
endurance of sufferings unjustly inflicted. Nor ought a man to give
another an occasion of acting unjustly: yet if anyone act unjustly, one
ought to endure it in moderation.
Article: 2
Whether martyrdom is an act of fortitude?
Objection 1: It seems that martyrdom is not an act of fortitude.
For the Greek {martyr} signifies a witness. Now witness is borne to the
faith of Christ. according to Acts 1:8, "You shall be witnesses unto
Me," etc. and Maximus says in a sermon: "The mother of martyrs is the
Catholic faith which those glorious warriors have sealed with their
blood." Therefore martyrdom is an act of faith rather than of fortitude.
Objection 2: Further, a praiseworthy act belongs chiefly to the
virtue which inclines thereto, is manifested thereby, and without which
the act avails nothing. Now charity is the chief incentive to
martyrdom: Thus Maximus says in a sermon: "The charity of Christ is
victorious in His martyrs." Again the greatest proof of charity lies in
the act of martyrdom, according to Jn. 15:13, "Greater love than this
no man hath, that a man lay down his life for his friends." Moreover
without charity martyrdom avails nothing, according to 1 Cor. 13:3, "If
I should deliver my body to be burned, and have not charity, it
profiteth me nothing." Therefore martyrdom is an act of charity rather
than of fortitude.
Objection 3: Further, Augustine says in a sermon on St. Cyprian:
"It is easy to honor a martyr by singing his praises, but it is a great
thing to imitate his faith and patience." Now that which calls chiefly
for praise in a virtuous act, is the virtue of which it is the act.
Therefore martyrdom is an act of patience rather than of fortitude.
On the contrary, Cyprian says (Ep. ad Mart. et Conf. ii):
"Blessed martyrs, with what praise shall I extol you? Most valiant
warriors, how shall I find words to proclaim the strength of your
courage?" Now a person is praised on account of the virtue whose act he
performs. Therefore martyrdom is an act of fortitude.
I answer that, As stated above (Question [123], Article [1],
seqq.), it belongs to fortitude to strengthen man in the good of
virtue, especially against dangers, and chiefly against dangers of
death, and most of all against those that occur in battle. Now it is
evident that in martyrdom man is firmly strengthened in the good of
virtue, since he cleaves to faith and justice notwithstanding the
threatening danger of death, the imminence of which is moreover due to
a kind of particular contest with his persecutors. Hence Cyprian says
in a sermon (Ep. ad Mart. et Conf. ii): "The crowd of onlookers
wondered to see an unearthly battle, and Christ's servants fighting
erect, undaunted in speech, with souls unmoved, and strength divine."
Wherefore it is evident that martyrdom is an act of fortitude; for
which reason the Church reads in the office of Martyrs: They "became
valiant in battle" [*Heb. 11:34].
Reply to Objection 1: Two things must be considered in the act
of fortitude. one is the good wherein the brave man is strengthened,
and this is the end of fortitude; the other is the firmness itself,
whereby a man does not yield to the contraries that hinder him from
achieving that good, and in this consists the essence of fortitude. Now
just as civic fortitude strengthens a man's mind in human justice, for
the safeguarding of which he braves the danger of death, so gratuitous
fortitude strengthens man's soul in the good of Divine justice, which
is "through faith in Christ Jesus," according to Rm. 3:22. Thus
martyrdom is related to faith as the end in which one is strengthened,
but to fortitude as the eliciting habit.
Reply to Objection 2: Charity inclines one to the act of
martyrdom, as its first and chief motive cause, being the virtue
commanding it, whereas fortitude inclines thereto as being its proper
motive cause, being the virtue that elicits it. Hence martyrdom is an
act of charity as commanding, and of fortitude as eliciting. For this
reason also it manifests both virtues. It is due to charity that it is
meritorious, like any other act of virtue: and for this reason it
avails not without charity.
Reply to Objection 3: As stated above (Question [123], Article
[6]), the chief act of fortitude is endurance: to this and not to its
secondary act, which is aggression, martyrdom belongs. And since
patience serves fortitude on the part of its chief act, viz. endurance,
hence it is that martyrs are also praised for their patience.
Article: 3
Whether martyrdom is an act of the greatest perfection?
Objection 1: It seems that martyrdom is not an act of the
greatest perfection. For seemingly that which is a matter of counsel
and not of precept pertains to perfection, because, to wit, it is not
necessary for salvation. But it would seem that martyrdom is necessary
for salvation, since the Apostle says (Rm. 10:10), "With the heart we
believe unto justice, but with the mouth confession is made unto
salvation," and it is written (1 Jn. 3:16), that "we ought to lay down
our lives for the brethren." Therefore martyrdom does not pertain to
perfection.
Objection 2: Further, it seems to point to greater perfection
that a man give his soul to God, which is done by obedience, than that
he give God his body, which is done by martyrdom: wherefore Gregory
says (Moral. xxxv) that "obedience is preferable to all sacrifices."
Therefore martyrdom is not an act of the greatest perfection.
Objection 3: Further, it would seem better to do good to others
than to maintain oneself in good, since the "good of the nation is
better than the good of the individual," according to the Philosopher
(Ethic. i, 2). Now he that suffers martyrdom profits himself alone,
whereas he that teaches does good to many. Therefore the act of
teaching and guiding subjects is more perfect than the act of martyrdom.
On the contrary, Augustine (De Sanct. Virgin. xlvi) prefers
martyrdom to virginity which pertains to perfection. Therefore
martyrdom seems to belong to perfection in the highest degree.
I answer that, We may speak of an act of virtue in two ways.
First, with regard to the species of that act, as compared to the
virtue proximately eliciting it. In this way martyrdom, which consists
in the due endurance of death, cannot be the most perfect of virtuous
acts, because endurance of death is not praiseworthy in itself, but
only in so far as it is directed to some good consisting in an act of
virtue, such as faith or the love of God, so that this act of virtue
being the end is better.
A virtuous act may be considered in another way, in
comparison with its first motive cause, which is the love of charity,
and it is in this respect that an act comes to belong to the perfection
of life, since, as the Apostle says (Col. 3:14), that "charity . . . is
the bond of perfection." Now, of all virtuous acts martyrdom is the
greatest proof of the perfection of charity: since a man's love for a
thing is proved to be so much the greater, according as that which he
despises for its sake is more dear to him, or that which he chooses to
suffer for its sake is more odious. But it is evident that of all the
goods of the present life man loves life itself most, and on the other
hand he hates death more than anything, especially when it is
accompanied by the pains of bodily torment, "from fear of which even
dumb animals refrain from the greatest pleasures," as Augustine
observes (Questions [83], qu. 36). And from this point of view it is
clear that martyrdom is the most perfect of human acts in respect of
its genus, as being the sign of the greatest charity, according to Jn.
15:13: "Greater love than this no man hath, that a man lay down his
life for his friends."
Reply to Objection 1: There is no act of perfection, which is a
matter of counsel, but what in certain cases is a matter of precept, as
being necessary for salvation. Thus Augustine declares (De Adult.
Conjug. xiii) that a man is under the obligation of observing
continency, through the absence or sickness of his wife. Hence it is
not contrary to the perfection of martyrdom if in certain cases it be
necessary for salvation, since there are cases when it is not necessary
for salvation to suffer martyrdom; thus we read of many holy martyrs
who through zeal for the faith or brotherly love gave themselves up to
martyrdom of their own accord. As to these precepts, they are to be
understood as referring to the preparation of the mind.
Reply to Objection 2: Martyrdom embraces the highest possible
degree of obedience, namely obedience unto death; thus we read of
Christ (Phil. 2:8) that He became "obedient unto death." Hence it is
evident that martyrdom is of itself more perfect than obedience
considered absolutely.
Reply to Objection 3: This argument considers martyrdom
according to the proper species of its act, whence it derives no
excellence over all other virtuous acts; thus neither is fortitude more
excellent than all virtues.
Article: 4
Whether death is essential to martyrdom?
Objection 1: It seems that death is not essential to martyrdom.
For Jerome says in a sermon on the Assumption (Epist. ad Paul. et
Eustoch.): "I should say rightly that the Mother of God was both virgin
and martyr, although she ended her days in peace": and Gregory says
(Hom. iii in Evang.): "Although persecution has ceased to offer the
opportunity, yet the peace we enjoy is not without its martyrdom, since
even if we no longer yield the life of the body to the sword, yet do we
slay fleshly desires in the soul with the sword of the spirit."
Therefore there can be martyrdom without suffering death.
Objection 2: Further, we read of certain women as commended for
despising life for the sake of safeguarding the integrity of the flesh:
wherefore seemingly the integrity of chastity is preferable to the life
of the body. Now sometimes the integrity of the flesh has been
forfeited or has been threatened in confession of the Christian faith,
as in the case of Agnes and Lucy. Therefore it seems that the name of
martyr should be accorded to a woman who forfeits the integrity of the
flesh for the sake of Christ's faith, rather than if she were to
forfeit even the life of the body: wherefore also Lucy said: "If thou
causest me to be violated against my will, my chastity will gain me a
twofold crown."
Objection 3: Further, martyrdom is an act of fortitude. But it
belongs to fortitude to brave not only death but also other hardships,
as Augustine declares (Music. vi). Now there are many other hardships
besides death, which one may suffer for Christ's faith, namely
imprisonment, exile, being stripped of one's goods, as mentioned in
Heb. 10:34, for which reason we celebrate the martyrdom of Pope Saint
Marcellus, notwithstanding that he died in prison. Therefore it is not
essential to martyrdom that one suffer the pain of death.
Objection 4: Further, martyrdom is a meritorious act, as stated
above (Article [2], ad 1; Article [3]). Now it cannot be a meritorious
act after death. Therefore it is before death; and consequently death
is not essential to martyrdom.
On the contrary, Maximus says in a sermon on the martyrs that
"in dying for the faith he conquers who would have been vanquished in
living without faith."
I answer that As stated above (Article [2]), a martyr is
so called as being a witness to the Christian faith, which teaches us
to despise things visible for the sake of things invisible, as stated
in Heb. 11. Accordingly it belongs to martyrdom that a man bear witness
to the faith in showing by deed that he despises all things present, in
order to obtain invisible goods to come. Now so long as a man retains
the life of the body he does not show by deed that he despises all
things relating to the body. For men are wont to despise both their
kindred and all they possess, and even to suffer bodily pain, rather
than lose life. Hence Satan testified against Job (Job 2:4): "Skin for
skin, and all that a man hath he will give for his soul" [Douay:
'life'] i.e. for the life of his body. Therefore the perfect notion of
martyrdom requires that a man suffer death for Christ's sake.
Reply to Objection 1: The authorities quoted, and the like that
one may meet with, speak of martyrdom by way of similitude.
Reply to Objection 2: When a woman forfeits the integrity of the
flesh, or is condemned to forfeit it under pretext of the Christian
faith, it is not evident to men whether she suffers this for love of
the Christian faith, or rather through contempt of chastity. Wherefore
in the sight of men her testimony is not held to be sufficient, and
consequently this is not martyrdom properly speaking. In the sight of
God, however, Who searcheth the heart, this may be deemed worthy of a
reward, as Lucy said.
Reply to Objection 3: As stated above (Question [123], Articles
[4],5), fortitude regards danger of death chiefly, and other dangers
consequently; wherefore a person is not called a martyr merely for
suffering imprisonment, or exile, or forfeiture of his wealth, except
in so far as these result in death.
Reply to Objection 4: The merit of martyrdom is not after death,
but in the voluntary endurance of death, namely in the fact that a
person willingly suffers being put to death. It happens sometimes,
however, that a man lives for some time after being mortally wounded
for Christ's sake, or after suffering for the faith of Christ any other
kind of hardship inflicted by persecution and continued until death
ensues. The act of martyrdom is meritorious while a man is in this
state, and at the very time that he is suffering these hardships.
Article: 5
Whether faith alone is the cause of martyrdom?
Objection 1: It seems that faith alone is the cause of
martyrdom. For it is written (1 Pt. 4:15,16): "Let none of you suffer
as a murderer, or a thief, or a railer, or a coveter of other men's
things. But if as a Christian, let him not be ashamed, but let him
glorify God in this name." Now a man is said to be a Christian because
he holds the faith of Christ. Therefore only faith in Christ gives the
glory of martyrdom to those who suffer.
Objection 2: Further, a martyr is a kind of witness. But witness
is borne to the truth alone. Now one is not called a martyr for bearing
witness to any truth, but only for witnessing to the Divine truth,
otherwise a man would be a martyr if he were to die for confessing a
truth of geometry or some other speculative science, which seems
ridiculous. Therefore faith alone is the cause of martyrdom.
Objection 3: Further, those virtuous deeds would seem to be of
most account which are directed to the common good, since "the good of
the nation is better than the good of the individual," according to the
Philosopher (Ethic. i, 2). If, then, some other good were the cause of
martyrdom, it would seem that before all those would be martyrs who die
for the defense of their country. Yet this is not consistent with
Church observance, for we do not celebrate the martyrdom of those who
die in a just war. Therefore faith alone is the cause of martyrdom.
On the contrary, It is written (Mt. 5:10): "Blessed are they
that suffer persecution for justice' sake," which pertains to
martyrdom, according to a gloss, as well as Jerome's commentary on this
passage. Now not only faith but also the other virtues pertain to
justice. Therefore other virtues can be the cause of martyrdom.
I answer that, As stated above (Article [4]), martyrs are so
called as being witnesses, because by suffering in body unto death they
bear witness to the truth; not indeed to any truth, but to the truth
which is in accordance with godliness, and was made known to us by
Christ: wherefore Christ's martyrs are His witnesses. Now this truth is
the truth of faith. Wherefore the cause of all martyrdom is the truth
of faith.
But the truth of faith includes not only inward belief,
but also outward profession, which is expressed not only by words,
whereby one confesses the faith, but also by deeds, whereby a person
shows that he has faith, according to James 2:18, "I will show thee, by
works, my faith." Hence it is written of certain people (Titus 1:16):
"They profess that they know God but in their works they deny Him."
Thus all virtuous deeds, inasmuch as they are referred to God, are
professions of the faith whereby we come to know that God requires
these works of us, and rewards us for them: and in this way they can be
the cause of martyrdom. For this reason the Church celebrates the
martyrdom of Blessed John the Baptist, who suffered death, not for
refusing to deny the faith, but for reproving adultery.
Reply to Objection 1: A Christian is one who is Christ's. Now a
person is said to be Christ's, not only through having faith in Christ,
but also because he is actuated to virtuous deeds by the Spirit of
Christ, according to Rm. 8:9, "If any man have not the Spirit of
Christ, he is none of His"; and again because in imitation of Christ he
is dead to sins, according to Gal. 5:24, "They that are Christ's have
crucified their flesh with the vices and concupiscences." Hence to
suffer as a Christian is not only to suffer in confession of the faith,
which is done by words, but also to suffer for doing any good work, or
for avoiding any sin, for Christ's sake, because this all comes under
the head of witnessing to the faith.
Reply to Objection 2: The truth of other sciences has no
connection with the worship of the Godhead: hence it is not called
truth according to godliness, and consequently the confession thereof
cannot be said to be the direct cause of martyrdom. Yet, since every
lie is a sin, as stated above (Question [110], Articles [3],4),
avoidance of a lie, to whatever truth it may be contrary, may be the
cause of martyrdom inasmuch as a lie is a sin against the Divine Law.
Reply to Objection 3: The good of one's country is paramount
among human goods: yet the Divine good, which is the proper cause of
martyrdom, is of more account than human good. Nevertheless, since
human good may become Divine, for instance when it is referred to God,
it follows that any human good in so far as it is referred to God, may
be the cause of martyrdom.
VICES OPPOSED TO FORTITUDE (Questions [125]-140)
Question: 125 OF FEAR* (FOUR ARTICLES) [*St. Thomas calls this vice indifferently
'fear' or 'timidity.' The translation requires one to adhere to these
terms on account of the connection with the passion of fear. Otherwise
'cowardice' would be a better rendering.]
We must now consider the vices opposed to fortitude: (1) Fear; (2) Fearlessness; (3) Daring.
Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:
(1) Whether fear is a sin?
(2) Whether it is opposed to fortitude?
(3) Whether it is a mortal sin?
(4) Whether it excuses from sin, or diminishes it?
Article: 1
Whether fear is a sin?
Objection 1: It seems that fear is not a sin. For fear is a
passion, as stated above (FS, Question [23], Article [4]; Question
[42]). Now we are neither praised nor blamed for passions, as stated in
Ethic. ii. Since then every sin is blameworthy, it seems that fear is
not a sin.
Objection 2: Further, nothing that is commanded in the Divine
Law is a sin: since the "law of the Lord is unspotted" (Ps. 18:8). Yet
fear is commanded in God's law, for it is written (Eph. 6:5):
"Servants, be obedient to them that are your lords according to the
flesh, with fear and trembling." Therefore fear is not a sin.
Objection 3: Further, nothing that is naturally in man is a sin,
for sin is contrary to nature according to Damascene (De Fide Orth.
iii). Now fear is natural to man: wherefore the Philosopher says
(Ethic. iii, 7) that "a man would be insane or insensible to pain, if
nothing, not even earthquakes nor deluges, inspired him with fear."
Therefore fear is not a sin. .
On the contrary, our Lord said (Mt. 10:28): "Fear ye not them
that kill the body," and it is written (Ezech. 2:6): "Fear not, neither
be thou afraid of their words."
I answer that, A human act is said to be a sin on account of its
being inordinate, because the good of a human act consists in order, as
stated above (Question [109], Article [2]; Question [114], Article
[1]). Now this due order requires that the appetite be subject to the
ruling of reason. And reason dictates that certain things should be
shunned and some sought after. Among things to be shunned, it dictates
that some are to be shunned more than others; and among things to be
sought after, that some are to be sought after more than others.
Moreover, the more a good is to be sought after, the more is the
opposite evil to be shunned. The result is that reason dictates that
certain goods are to be sought after more than certain evils are to be
avoided. Accordingly when the appetite shuns what the reason dictates
that we should endure rather than forfeit others that we should rather
seek for, fear is inordinate and sinful. On the other hand, when the
appetite fears so as to shun what reason requires to be shunned, the
appetite is neither inordinate nor sinful.
Reply to Objection 1: Fear in its generic acceptation denotes
avoidance in general. Hence in this way it does not include the notion
of good or evil: and the same applies to every other passion. Wherefore
the Philosopher says that passions call for neither praise nor blame,
because, to wit, we neither praise nor blame those who are angry or
afraid, but only those who behave thus in an ordinate or inordinate
manner.
Reply to Objection 2: The fear which the Apostle inculcates is
in accordance with reason, namely that servants should fear lest they
be lacking in the service they owe their masters.
Reply to Objection 3: Reason dictates that we should shun the
evils that we cannot withstand, and the endurance of which profits us
nothing. Hence there is no sin in fearing them.
Article: 2
Whether the sin of fear is contrary to fortitude?
Objection 1: It seems that the sin of fear is not contrary to
fortitude: because fortitude is about dangers of death, as stated above
(Question [123], Articles [4],5). But the sin of fear is not always
connected with dangers of death, for a gloss on Ps. 127:1, "Blessed are
all they that fear the Lord," says that "it is human fear whereby we
dread to suffer carnal dangers, or to lose worldly goods." Again a
gloss on Mt. 27:44, "He prayed the third time, saying the selfsame
word," says that "evil fear is threefold, fear of death, fear of pain,
and fear of contempt." Therefore the sin of fear is not contrary to
fortitude.
Objection 2: Further, the chief reason why a man is commended
for fortitude is that he exposes himself to the danger of death. Now
sometimes a man exposes himself to death through fear of slavery or
shame. Thus Augustine relates (De Civ. Dei i) that Cato, in order not
to be Caesar's slave, gave himself up to death. Therefore the sin of
fear bears a certain likeness to fortitude instead of being opposed
thereto.
Objection 3: Further, all despair arises from fear. But despair
is opposed not to fortitude but to hope, as stated above (Question
[20], Article [1]; FS, Question [40], Article [4]). Neither therefore
is the sin of fear opposed to fortitude.
On the contrary, The Philosopher (Ethic. ii, 7; iii, 7) states that timidity is opposed to fortitude.
I answer that, As stated above (Question [19], Article [3]; FS,
Question [43], Article [1]), all fear arises from love; since no one
fears save what is contrary to something he loves. Now love is not
confined to any particular kind of virtue or |